Genesis 1:26
"And God said, Let us make man in our image, after
our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the
earth."
Many folks have used this verse of scripture to prove the
supposed theory of the "triune" nature of God as they believe is
revealed in the Old Testament. What would be the answer to this teaching
from a Oneness believer as myself? How could I defend the Oneness of God
with such a verse as this one that seem to being identifying God with a plural
pronoun? Keep in mind that the Old Testament was written by the Hebrew
people, and these people strongly believed and were instructed by God that He
was the ONLY Creator and ONE God. Therefore, for someone to come years
later and attempt to understand God through philosophy, vain deceit, through the
rudiments of the world, and after the traditions of men and use these pronouns
to teach contrary to the understanding of the original writers can be descried
as nothing more than ignorance. We will now build a foundation of why the
original writers believed in the Oneness of God:
Deut 4:35 |
Unto thee it was shewed, that thou mightest know that the LORD he is God; there is none else beside him. |
Deut 4:39 |
Know therefore this day, and consider it in thine heart, that the LORD he is God in heaven above, and upon the earth beneath: there is none else. |
Deut 6:4 |
Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD: |
Isaiah 43:11 |
I, even I, am the LORD; and beside me there is no saviour. |
Isaiah 44:8 |
Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any. |
Isaiah 63:16 |
Doubtless thou art our father, though Abraham be ignorant of us, and Israel acknowledge us not: thou, O LORD, art
our father, our redeemer; thy name is from everlasting. |
Malachi 2:10 |
Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers? |
Isaiah 45:22 |
Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else. |
Isaiah 44:24 |
Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that
stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by
myself; |
Now after reading these scriptures, we must be extremely
careful not to compromise what the LORD has explained to us. What most
theologians and traditional bible scholars do is use the reasoning that God can
still be ONE and yet have a "triune" nature. They do not believe
that the doctrine of the trinity, "three persons in One God"
compromises these scriptures. Then if you ask about this doctrine, and try to
understand how God could be ONE but three persons at the same time, you cannot
understand it. Then you are told that this is a divine mystery that
cannot be understood. HOWEVER. We must be careful that our doctrine be
molded by scripture, and NOT mold scripture to fit our doctrine. I believe
that there is a simple answer to the plural pronouns in Genesis 1:26 that do not
compromise the scriptures at all, and I believe that God intended for us to
understand these matters for the scripture tells us:
Romans 1:20 For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are
clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and
Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
When the apostle Paul writes such words as CLEARLY
SEEN and BEING UNDERSTOOD... to me defines that this issue SHOULD NOT BE A
MYSTERY. Believers in a triune nature of God are logically stating the
following:
Clearlry Seen +
Being Understood = A
Divine Mystery
Call me simple minded if you will, but common
sense tells me that if God said I could clearly see and understand even his
eternal power and Godhead, then that means I should not call it a mystery.
So now we will explain our understanding of these matters by the help of God.
We have taken the original Hebrew from a Strong's
Concordance and we will examine the original verse from Hebrew translation:
Hebrew |
Elohiym
el-o-heem'
‘amar aw-mar'
`asah
aw-saw' 'adam
aw-dawm' |
English |
God said
make
man
|
Hebrew |
‘tselem
tseh'-lem’ dmuwth
dem-ooth' radah
raw-daw'
‘dagah daw-gaw' |
English |
image
likeness
dominion
fish |
Hebrew |
yam
yawm
owph
ofe
shamayim shaw-mah'-yim bhemah
be-hay-maw' |
English |
sea
fowl
air (sky)
cattle |
Hebrew |
'erets
eh'-rets
remes
reh'-mes ramas raw-mas'
'erets
eh'-rets |
English |
earth
creeping
creature
any creeping creature earth |
The "Plural Majestic" of the Hebrew language
ELOHIM - The Hebrew Noun used to designate God. Notice
that this is the noun used in the verse to describe God. It is true that
Elohim is a plural noun in this verse. But hold on, please do not leave
with just that understanding, you must understand why this is so. In
Hebrew tradition, it was always a correct formality to speak of majesty and
kings using the plural out of respect for that royalty. This is why Elohim
is used to describe God, out of Majestic respect to God, never was it intended
for someone to read the verse with the understanding that the Hebrews were
referring to there God as more than One person!!! The Hebrew
language is an elementary language that does not compare to the complexity of
the English language. Understanding this logic, you must also keep in mind
that the Hebrew language does not include what we refer to as
"pronouns". As you read the above verse, notice that the English
line does not include conjunctions or pronouns, as this is exaclty how it was
written in the orginal language. When the Hebrew scriptures were
translated into Greek, Latin, and English, the translators used pronouns and
conjunctions to correctly give understanding in the respective language.
Because ELOHIM is PLURAL, when the translators added pronouns into the
scripture, it was necessary for the pronouns added to agree with the tense of
the noun that it represented. Therefore, the translators were absolutely
correct with the translation using US and OUR as plural pronouns to describe
God, however keep in mind that the plurality of Elohim was merely a custom of
respect to majesty. Also please read verse 27 which says...
Genesis 1:27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
If there had been a "trinity" I would have to ask
the question which person of God was man created in? The first, second, or
third?
Of course this is silly. The answer is simply that God's
image was Jesus Christ (John 1:1,14 2 Cor 5:19, Colossian 1:15) an image
that God created before the foundation of the world, but did not become a
reality until the fullness of time came. (Galatians 4:4). Remember that
the Bible says that Jesus was slain before the foundation of the world, and that
He was the Word with God from the beginning of time. This does NOT MEAN
that God was talking to His Son from the beginning of time, It means that God
had the plan of Salvation, and the plan of manifesting Himself in flesh before
the foundation of the world. It was not until Mary concieved through the
power of the Holy Ghost that the Son of God became a physical reality.
Before Bethlehem the Son of God was not manifested, but was simply known to His
people as the ONLY GOD. Isaiah 63:16.. Thou O LORD are our Father and our
Redeemer, and thy name is for everlasting....
And His wonderful name is Jesus Christ, the Alpha and Omega, the
Beginning and the Ending which was and is and is to come.. The Almighty.
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